I recently sent in some clean 14/20 gold-filled scrap, mostly partial

rings and coil ends from cutting jump rings and messed up wire from

wire wrapping. The refiner reported that it only contained 41% of the

gold that I expected from math calculation. I expected a result of

something less than 100% of the math, but is 41% reasonable?

Cheers.

John Fetvedt

www.bijoux-de-terre.com

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I recently sent in some clean 14/20 gold-filled scrap, mostly
partial rings and coil ends from cutting jump rings and messed up
wire from wire wrapping. The refiner reported that it only
contained 41% of the gold that I expected from math calculation. I
expected a result of something less than 100% of the math, but is
41% reasonable?
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First thing would be to check whether your math is based on the

right numbers. For example, did you take the ratio of gold to base

metal in the gold filled (marked things like 1/20th as a weight

ratio, or a percentage of thickness? Did you allow for the fact that

the portion stated as gold in that ratio is itself karat gold, not a

measure of it’s fine gold content?

If your math is based on the correct assumptions, the metal you sent

all the quality you stated, and the refiner really only found 41

percent of the metal you had, then that would be more of a refining

loss than is normal. But I’ll bet there’s some aspect of your

calculations that you’ve missed…

Cheers

Peter Rowe

You better have a lot because gold filled is usually 1/20th 14kt,

which means less than 5% of the weight is gold.

T’aint much.

David Geller

www.JewelerProfit.com

first, was your gf double clad or single clad? was it 14kt? If so,

you may have screwed up there.you have to realize the GF is starting

off at only 1-5% fine gold. 14kt is 58.33% fine gold. So given the

karat, you then have to determine the amount of gold bonded to the

base metal ( generally 1-5%) then do the math based on the weight of

the lot you submitted to find the approximate amount of fine gold

you sent in to your refinery. Some give you 100% of market, some

less. some charge an assay fee and other fees you may not have

realized, but if they are only paying 41% of market, then the error

is I’m afraid in your preliminary research as to what portion of

market they pay out…In general 41% of what you thought sounds

reasonable if you did not account for the initial 58.3 % gold content

to start your equasion…rer

OK, since several people have questioned my math, here it is.

12.94 OZT gross - 1.35 OZT tare = 11.59 OZT net

divide by 20 for 14/20 gf = 0.58 OZT 15 Kt. Gold

divide by 0.582 for 14 Kt. = 0.34 OZT gold

yield reported by refiner - 0.13 OZT gold

actual recovery = 38%

Cheers.

John Fetvedt

www.bijoux-de-terre.com